What's so special about standard deviation?
$begingroup$
Equivalently, about variance?
I realize it measures the spread of a distribution, but many other metrics could do the same (e.g., the average absolute deviation). What is its deeper significance? Does it have
- a particular geometric interpretation (in the sense, e.g., that the mean is the balancing point of a distribution)?
- any other intuitive interpretation that differentiates it from other possible measures of spread?
What's so special about it that makes it act as a normalizing factor in all sorts of situations (for example, convert covariance to correlation)?
statistics
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Equivalently, about variance?
I realize it measures the spread of a distribution, but many other metrics could do the same (e.g., the average absolute deviation). What is its deeper significance? Does it have
- a particular geometric interpretation (in the sense, e.g., that the mean is the balancing point of a distribution)?
- any other intuitive interpretation that differentiates it from other possible measures of spread?
What's so special about it that makes it act as a normalizing factor in all sorts of situations (for example, convert covariance to correlation)?
statistics
$endgroup$
6
$begingroup$
Have you heard the term "moment?" The variance is the second moment about the mean. See HERE
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– Mark Viola
yesterday
3
$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of Intuition behind Variance forumla
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– Michael Hoppe
20 hours ago
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@MarkViola And? Variance can be generalized, therefore it's meaningful?
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– Jack M
3 hours ago
1
$begingroup$
The absolute value deviation is a perfectly valid measure of deviation. However absolute values are very hard to work with analytically, squares are much easier. That's one answer: calculabillity.
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– Winther
2 hours ago
$begingroup$
@Winther: That makes sense. What I don't understand is why it normalizes values (eg covariance), and what is its geometric interpretation in one dimension (I undestand the vector space approach given by other answers)
$endgroup$
– blue_note
1 hour ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Equivalently, about variance?
I realize it measures the spread of a distribution, but many other metrics could do the same (e.g., the average absolute deviation). What is its deeper significance? Does it have
- a particular geometric interpretation (in the sense, e.g., that the mean is the balancing point of a distribution)?
- any other intuitive interpretation that differentiates it from other possible measures of spread?
What's so special about it that makes it act as a normalizing factor in all sorts of situations (for example, convert covariance to correlation)?
statistics
$endgroup$
Equivalently, about variance?
I realize it measures the spread of a distribution, but many other metrics could do the same (e.g., the average absolute deviation). What is its deeper significance? Does it have
- a particular geometric interpretation (in the sense, e.g., that the mean is the balancing point of a distribution)?
- any other intuitive interpretation that differentiates it from other possible measures of spread?
What's so special about it that makes it act as a normalizing factor in all sorts of situations (for example, convert covariance to correlation)?
statistics
statistics
edited 15 hours ago
amWhy
192k28225439
192k28225439
asked yesterday
blue_noteblue_note
34928
34928
6
$begingroup$
Have you heard the term "moment?" The variance is the second moment about the mean. See HERE
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
yesterday
3
$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of Intuition behind Variance forumla
$endgroup$
– Michael Hoppe
20 hours ago
$begingroup$
@MarkViola And? Variance can be generalized, therefore it's meaningful?
$endgroup$
– Jack M
3 hours ago
1
$begingroup$
The absolute value deviation is a perfectly valid measure of deviation. However absolute values are very hard to work with analytically, squares are much easier. That's one answer: calculabillity.
$endgroup$
– Winther
2 hours ago
$begingroup$
@Winther: That makes sense. What I don't understand is why it normalizes values (eg covariance), and what is its geometric interpretation in one dimension (I undestand the vector space approach given by other answers)
$endgroup$
– blue_note
1 hour ago
add a comment |
6
$begingroup$
Have you heard the term "moment?" The variance is the second moment about the mean. See HERE
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
yesterday
3
$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of Intuition behind Variance forumla
$endgroup$
– Michael Hoppe
20 hours ago
$begingroup$
@MarkViola And? Variance can be generalized, therefore it's meaningful?
$endgroup$
– Jack M
3 hours ago
1
$begingroup$
The absolute value deviation is a perfectly valid measure of deviation. However absolute values are very hard to work with analytically, squares are much easier. That's one answer: calculabillity.
$endgroup$
– Winther
2 hours ago
$begingroup$
@Winther: That makes sense. What I don't understand is why it normalizes values (eg covariance), and what is its geometric interpretation in one dimension (I undestand the vector space approach given by other answers)
$endgroup$
– blue_note
1 hour ago
6
6
$begingroup$
Have you heard the term "moment?" The variance is the second moment about the mean. See HERE
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
yesterday
$begingroup$
Have you heard the term "moment?" The variance is the second moment about the mean. See HERE
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
yesterday
3
3
$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of Intuition behind Variance forumla
$endgroup$
– Michael Hoppe
20 hours ago
$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of Intuition behind Variance forumla
$endgroup$
– Michael Hoppe
20 hours ago
$begingroup$
@MarkViola And? Variance can be generalized, therefore it's meaningful?
$endgroup$
– Jack M
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
@MarkViola And? Variance can be generalized, therefore it's meaningful?
$endgroup$
– Jack M
3 hours ago
1
1
$begingroup$
The absolute value deviation is a perfectly valid measure of deviation. However absolute values are very hard to work with analytically, squares are much easier. That's one answer: calculabillity.
$endgroup$
– Winther
2 hours ago
$begingroup$
The absolute value deviation is a perfectly valid measure of deviation. However absolute values are very hard to work with analytically, squares are much easier. That's one answer: calculabillity.
$endgroup$
– Winther
2 hours ago
$begingroup$
@Winther: That makes sense. What I don't understand is why it normalizes values (eg covariance), and what is its geometric interpretation in one dimension (I undestand the vector space approach given by other answers)
$endgroup$
– blue_note
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
@Winther: That makes sense. What I don't understand is why it normalizes values (eg covariance), and what is its geometric interpretation in one dimension (I undestand the vector space approach given by other answers)
$endgroup$
– blue_note
1 hour ago
add a comment |
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
There's a very nice geometric interpretation.
Random variables of finite mean form a vector space. Covariance is a useful inner product on that space. Oh, wait, that's not quite right: constant variables are orthogonal to themselves in this product, so it's only positive semi-definite. So, let me be more precise - on the quotient space formed by the equivalence relation "differs from by a constant", covariance is a true inner product. (If quotient spaces are an unfamiliar concept, just focus on the vector space of zero-mean variables; it gets you the same outcome in this context.)
Right, let's carry on. In the norm this inner product induces, standard deviation is a variable's length, while the correlation coefficient between two variables (their covariance divided by the product of their standard deviations) is the cosine of the "angle" between them. That the correlation coefficient is in $[-1,,1]$ is then a restatement of the vector space's Cauchy-Schwarz inequality.
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8
$begingroup$
Interesting approach. Is it a personal interpretation or a standard one? If it's standard, are there any resources you can provide? I haven't seen it in any book...
$endgroup$
– blue_note
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
@blue_note You're most likely to encounter it in a discussion of regression, since regressing $Y$ against $X$ writes $Y$ as a multiple of $X$, plus a variable orthogonal to $X$ in this sense. In fact, the coefficients involved in such an expression square to the proportion of variance explained. This has a well-understood connection to probability in quantum mechanics. But really, any source that explains why there's a $^2$ in $R^2$ will at least hint at these ideas.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
Can someone provide a concrete example or other similar dumbing down of this answer?
$endgroup$
– user1717828
yesterday
1
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A paragraph on wikipedia about it @blue_note
$endgroup$
– WorldSEnder
yesterday
$begingroup$
For this inner product to be properly defined everywhere, we perhaps need to restrict to the space of finite-variance random variables, rather than just to those which have finite (or zero) mean?
$endgroup$
– James Martin
19 hours ago
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
I take it as unproblematic that the standard deviation is important in the normal distribution since the standard deviation (or variance) is one of its parameters (though it could doubtless be reparameterized in various ways). By the Central Limit Theorem, the normal distribution is in turn relevant for understanding just about any distribution: If $X$ is a normal variable with mean $mu$ and standard deviation $sigma$, then for large $n$
$$frac{overline{X} - mu}{frac{sigma}{sqrt{n}}}$$
is approximately standard normal. No other measure of dispersion can so relate $X$ with the normal distribution. Said simply, the Central Limit Theorem in and of itself guarantees that the standard deviation plays a prominent role in statistics.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Related question to this: The role of variance in Central Limit Theorem
$endgroup$
– Winther
1 hour ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
An interesting feature of the standard deviation is its connection to the (root) mean square error. This measures how well a predictor does in predicting the values. The root mean square error of using the mean as a predictor is the standard deviation, and this is the least root mean square error that you can get with a constant predictor.
(This, of course, shifts the question to why the root mean squared error is interesting. I find it a bit more intuitive than the standard deviation, though: you can see it as the $L_2$ norm of the error vector, corrected for the number of points.)
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1
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Good point. However, it indeed shifts the question. Although I can see that in a vector space, in a standard 2D plot of (X, Y) pairs I can see what the variance is on the eg. horizontal axis
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– blue_note
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
When defining "standard deviation", we want some way to take a bunch of deviations from a mean and quantify how big they typically are using a single number in the same units as the deviations themselves. But any definition of "standard deviation" induces a corresponding definition of "mean" because we want our choice of "mean" to always minimize the value of our "standard deviation" (intuitively, we want to define "mean" to be the "middlemost" point as measured by "standard deviation"). Only by defining "standard deviation" in the usual way do we recover the arithmetic mean while still having a measure in the right units. (Without getting into details, the key point is that the quadratic becomes linear when we take the derivative to find its critical point.)
If we want to use some other mean, we can of course find a different "standard deviation" that will match that mean (the progress is somewhat analogous to integration), but in practice it's just easier to transform the data so that the arithmetic mean is appropriate.
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$endgroup$
$begingroup$
If all you want is to minimization at the mean and the right units, why not sum/integrate the magnitude of the deviations?
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– mephistolotl
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The normal distribution has maximum entropy among real distributions supported on $(-infty, infty)$ with specified standard deviation (equivalently, variance). (Reference.) Consequently, if the only thing you know about a real distribution supported on $mathbb{R}$ is its mean and variance, the distribution that presumes the least prior information is the normal distribution.
I don't tend to think of the statement above as the important fact. It's more: normal distributions appear frequently and knowing the location parameter (mean) is reasonable. So what else do I have to know to make the least presumptive model be the normal distribution? The dispersion (variance).
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add a comment |
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5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
There's a very nice geometric interpretation.
Random variables of finite mean form a vector space. Covariance is a useful inner product on that space. Oh, wait, that's not quite right: constant variables are orthogonal to themselves in this product, so it's only positive semi-definite. So, let me be more precise - on the quotient space formed by the equivalence relation "differs from by a constant", covariance is a true inner product. (If quotient spaces are an unfamiliar concept, just focus on the vector space of zero-mean variables; it gets you the same outcome in this context.)
Right, let's carry on. In the norm this inner product induces, standard deviation is a variable's length, while the correlation coefficient between two variables (their covariance divided by the product of their standard deviations) is the cosine of the "angle" between them. That the correlation coefficient is in $[-1,,1]$ is then a restatement of the vector space's Cauchy-Schwarz inequality.
$endgroup$
8
$begingroup$
Interesting approach. Is it a personal interpretation or a standard one? If it's standard, are there any resources you can provide? I haven't seen it in any book...
$endgroup$
– blue_note
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
@blue_note You're most likely to encounter it in a discussion of regression, since regressing $Y$ against $X$ writes $Y$ as a multiple of $X$, plus a variable orthogonal to $X$ in this sense. In fact, the coefficients involved in such an expression square to the proportion of variance explained. This has a well-understood connection to probability in quantum mechanics. But really, any source that explains why there's a $^2$ in $R^2$ will at least hint at these ideas.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
Can someone provide a concrete example or other similar dumbing down of this answer?
$endgroup$
– user1717828
yesterday
1
$begingroup$
A paragraph on wikipedia about it @blue_note
$endgroup$
– WorldSEnder
yesterday
$begingroup$
For this inner product to be properly defined everywhere, we perhaps need to restrict to the space of finite-variance random variables, rather than just to those which have finite (or zero) mean?
$endgroup$
– James Martin
19 hours ago
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
There's a very nice geometric interpretation.
Random variables of finite mean form a vector space. Covariance is a useful inner product on that space. Oh, wait, that's not quite right: constant variables are orthogonal to themselves in this product, so it's only positive semi-definite. So, let me be more precise - on the quotient space formed by the equivalence relation "differs from by a constant", covariance is a true inner product. (If quotient spaces are an unfamiliar concept, just focus on the vector space of zero-mean variables; it gets you the same outcome in this context.)
Right, let's carry on. In the norm this inner product induces, standard deviation is a variable's length, while the correlation coefficient between two variables (their covariance divided by the product of their standard deviations) is the cosine of the "angle" between them. That the correlation coefficient is in $[-1,,1]$ is then a restatement of the vector space's Cauchy-Schwarz inequality.
$endgroup$
8
$begingroup$
Interesting approach. Is it a personal interpretation or a standard one? If it's standard, are there any resources you can provide? I haven't seen it in any book...
$endgroup$
– blue_note
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
@blue_note You're most likely to encounter it in a discussion of regression, since regressing $Y$ against $X$ writes $Y$ as a multiple of $X$, plus a variable orthogonal to $X$ in this sense. In fact, the coefficients involved in such an expression square to the proportion of variance explained. This has a well-understood connection to probability in quantum mechanics. But really, any source that explains why there's a $^2$ in $R^2$ will at least hint at these ideas.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
Can someone provide a concrete example or other similar dumbing down of this answer?
$endgroup$
– user1717828
yesterday
1
$begingroup$
A paragraph on wikipedia about it @blue_note
$endgroup$
– WorldSEnder
yesterday
$begingroup$
For this inner product to be properly defined everywhere, we perhaps need to restrict to the space of finite-variance random variables, rather than just to those which have finite (or zero) mean?
$endgroup$
– James Martin
19 hours ago
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
There's a very nice geometric interpretation.
Random variables of finite mean form a vector space. Covariance is a useful inner product on that space. Oh, wait, that's not quite right: constant variables are orthogonal to themselves in this product, so it's only positive semi-definite. So, let me be more precise - on the quotient space formed by the equivalence relation "differs from by a constant", covariance is a true inner product. (If quotient spaces are an unfamiliar concept, just focus on the vector space of zero-mean variables; it gets you the same outcome in this context.)
Right, let's carry on. In the norm this inner product induces, standard deviation is a variable's length, while the correlation coefficient between two variables (their covariance divided by the product of their standard deviations) is the cosine of the "angle" between them. That the correlation coefficient is in $[-1,,1]$ is then a restatement of the vector space's Cauchy-Schwarz inequality.
$endgroup$
There's a very nice geometric interpretation.
Random variables of finite mean form a vector space. Covariance is a useful inner product on that space. Oh, wait, that's not quite right: constant variables are orthogonal to themselves in this product, so it's only positive semi-definite. So, let me be more precise - on the quotient space formed by the equivalence relation "differs from by a constant", covariance is a true inner product. (If quotient spaces are an unfamiliar concept, just focus on the vector space of zero-mean variables; it gets you the same outcome in this context.)
Right, let's carry on. In the norm this inner product induces, standard deviation is a variable's length, while the correlation coefficient between two variables (their covariance divided by the product of their standard deviations) is the cosine of the "angle" between them. That the correlation coefficient is in $[-1,,1]$ is then a restatement of the vector space's Cauchy-Schwarz inequality.
answered yesterday
J.G.J.G.
23.8k22538
23.8k22538
8
$begingroup$
Interesting approach. Is it a personal interpretation or a standard one? If it's standard, are there any resources you can provide? I haven't seen it in any book...
$endgroup$
– blue_note
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
@blue_note You're most likely to encounter it in a discussion of regression, since regressing $Y$ against $X$ writes $Y$ as a multiple of $X$, plus a variable orthogonal to $X$ in this sense. In fact, the coefficients involved in such an expression square to the proportion of variance explained. This has a well-understood connection to probability in quantum mechanics. But really, any source that explains why there's a $^2$ in $R^2$ will at least hint at these ideas.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
Can someone provide a concrete example or other similar dumbing down of this answer?
$endgroup$
– user1717828
yesterday
1
$begingroup$
A paragraph on wikipedia about it @blue_note
$endgroup$
– WorldSEnder
yesterday
$begingroup$
For this inner product to be properly defined everywhere, we perhaps need to restrict to the space of finite-variance random variables, rather than just to those which have finite (or zero) mean?
$endgroup$
– James Martin
19 hours ago
|
show 1 more comment
8
$begingroup$
Interesting approach. Is it a personal interpretation or a standard one? If it's standard, are there any resources you can provide? I haven't seen it in any book...
$endgroup$
– blue_note
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
@blue_note You're most likely to encounter it in a discussion of regression, since regressing $Y$ against $X$ writes $Y$ as a multiple of $X$, plus a variable orthogonal to $X$ in this sense. In fact, the coefficients involved in such an expression square to the proportion of variance explained. This has a well-understood connection to probability in quantum mechanics. But really, any source that explains why there's a $^2$ in $R^2$ will at least hint at these ideas.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
Can someone provide a concrete example or other similar dumbing down of this answer?
$endgroup$
– user1717828
yesterday
1
$begingroup$
A paragraph on wikipedia about it @blue_note
$endgroup$
– WorldSEnder
yesterday
$begingroup$
For this inner product to be properly defined everywhere, we perhaps need to restrict to the space of finite-variance random variables, rather than just to those which have finite (or zero) mean?
$endgroup$
– James Martin
19 hours ago
8
8
$begingroup$
Interesting approach. Is it a personal interpretation or a standard one? If it's standard, are there any resources you can provide? I haven't seen it in any book...
$endgroup$
– blue_note
yesterday
$begingroup$
Interesting approach. Is it a personal interpretation or a standard one? If it's standard, are there any resources you can provide? I haven't seen it in any book...
$endgroup$
– blue_note
yesterday
2
2
$begingroup$
@blue_note You're most likely to encounter it in a discussion of regression, since regressing $Y$ against $X$ writes $Y$ as a multiple of $X$, plus a variable orthogonal to $X$ in this sense. In fact, the coefficients involved in such an expression square to the proportion of variance explained. This has a well-understood connection to probability in quantum mechanics. But really, any source that explains why there's a $^2$ in $R^2$ will at least hint at these ideas.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
yesterday
$begingroup$
@blue_note You're most likely to encounter it in a discussion of regression, since regressing $Y$ against $X$ writes $Y$ as a multiple of $X$, plus a variable orthogonal to $X$ in this sense. In fact, the coefficients involved in such an expression square to the proportion of variance explained. This has a well-understood connection to probability in quantum mechanics. But really, any source that explains why there's a $^2$ in $R^2$ will at least hint at these ideas.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
yesterday
2
2
$begingroup$
Can someone provide a concrete example or other similar dumbing down of this answer?
$endgroup$
– user1717828
yesterday
$begingroup$
Can someone provide a concrete example or other similar dumbing down of this answer?
$endgroup$
– user1717828
yesterday
1
1
$begingroup$
A paragraph on wikipedia about it @blue_note
$endgroup$
– WorldSEnder
yesterday
$begingroup$
A paragraph on wikipedia about it @blue_note
$endgroup$
– WorldSEnder
yesterday
$begingroup$
For this inner product to be properly defined everywhere, we perhaps need to restrict to the space of finite-variance random variables, rather than just to those which have finite (or zero) mean?
$endgroup$
– James Martin
19 hours ago
$begingroup$
For this inner product to be properly defined everywhere, we perhaps need to restrict to the space of finite-variance random variables, rather than just to those which have finite (or zero) mean?
$endgroup$
– James Martin
19 hours ago
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
I take it as unproblematic that the standard deviation is important in the normal distribution since the standard deviation (or variance) is one of its parameters (though it could doubtless be reparameterized in various ways). By the Central Limit Theorem, the normal distribution is in turn relevant for understanding just about any distribution: If $X$ is a normal variable with mean $mu$ and standard deviation $sigma$, then for large $n$
$$frac{overline{X} - mu}{frac{sigma}{sqrt{n}}}$$
is approximately standard normal. No other measure of dispersion can so relate $X$ with the normal distribution. Said simply, the Central Limit Theorem in and of itself guarantees that the standard deviation plays a prominent role in statistics.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Related question to this: The role of variance in Central Limit Theorem
$endgroup$
– Winther
1 hour ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I take it as unproblematic that the standard deviation is important in the normal distribution since the standard deviation (or variance) is one of its parameters (though it could doubtless be reparameterized in various ways). By the Central Limit Theorem, the normal distribution is in turn relevant for understanding just about any distribution: If $X$ is a normal variable with mean $mu$ and standard deviation $sigma$, then for large $n$
$$frac{overline{X} - mu}{frac{sigma}{sqrt{n}}}$$
is approximately standard normal. No other measure of dispersion can so relate $X$ with the normal distribution. Said simply, the Central Limit Theorem in and of itself guarantees that the standard deviation plays a prominent role in statistics.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Related question to this: The role of variance in Central Limit Theorem
$endgroup$
– Winther
1 hour ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I take it as unproblematic that the standard deviation is important in the normal distribution since the standard deviation (or variance) is one of its parameters (though it could doubtless be reparameterized in various ways). By the Central Limit Theorem, the normal distribution is in turn relevant for understanding just about any distribution: If $X$ is a normal variable with mean $mu$ and standard deviation $sigma$, then for large $n$
$$frac{overline{X} - mu}{frac{sigma}{sqrt{n}}}$$
is approximately standard normal. No other measure of dispersion can so relate $X$ with the normal distribution. Said simply, the Central Limit Theorem in and of itself guarantees that the standard deviation plays a prominent role in statistics.
$endgroup$
I take it as unproblematic that the standard deviation is important in the normal distribution since the standard deviation (or variance) is one of its parameters (though it could doubtless be reparameterized in various ways). By the Central Limit Theorem, the normal distribution is in turn relevant for understanding just about any distribution: If $X$ is a normal variable with mean $mu$ and standard deviation $sigma$, then for large $n$
$$frac{overline{X} - mu}{frac{sigma}{sqrt{n}}}$$
is approximately standard normal. No other measure of dispersion can so relate $X$ with the normal distribution. Said simply, the Central Limit Theorem in and of itself guarantees that the standard deviation plays a prominent role in statistics.
answered 23 hours ago
John ColemanJohn Coleman
3,79811223
3,79811223
$begingroup$
Related question to this: The role of variance in Central Limit Theorem
$endgroup$
– Winther
1 hour ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Related question to this: The role of variance in Central Limit Theorem
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– Winther
1 hour ago
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Related question to this: The role of variance in Central Limit Theorem
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– Winther
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
Related question to this: The role of variance in Central Limit Theorem
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– Winther
1 hour ago
add a comment |
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An interesting feature of the standard deviation is its connection to the (root) mean square error. This measures how well a predictor does in predicting the values. The root mean square error of using the mean as a predictor is the standard deviation, and this is the least root mean square error that you can get with a constant predictor.
(This, of course, shifts the question to why the root mean squared error is interesting. I find it a bit more intuitive than the standard deviation, though: you can see it as the $L_2$ norm of the error vector, corrected for the number of points.)
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1
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Good point. However, it indeed shifts the question. Although I can see that in a vector space, in a standard 2D plot of (X, Y) pairs I can see what the variance is on the eg. horizontal axis
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– blue_note
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
An interesting feature of the standard deviation is its connection to the (root) mean square error. This measures how well a predictor does in predicting the values. The root mean square error of using the mean as a predictor is the standard deviation, and this is the least root mean square error that you can get with a constant predictor.
(This, of course, shifts the question to why the root mean squared error is interesting. I find it a bit more intuitive than the standard deviation, though: you can see it as the $L_2$ norm of the error vector, corrected for the number of points.)
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1
$begingroup$
Good point. However, it indeed shifts the question. Although I can see that in a vector space, in a standard 2D plot of (X, Y) pairs I can see what the variance is on the eg. horizontal axis
$endgroup$
– blue_note
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
An interesting feature of the standard deviation is its connection to the (root) mean square error. This measures how well a predictor does in predicting the values. The root mean square error of using the mean as a predictor is the standard deviation, and this is the least root mean square error that you can get with a constant predictor.
(This, of course, shifts the question to why the root mean squared error is interesting. I find it a bit more intuitive than the standard deviation, though: you can see it as the $L_2$ norm of the error vector, corrected for the number of points.)
$endgroup$
An interesting feature of the standard deviation is its connection to the (root) mean square error. This measures how well a predictor does in predicting the values. The root mean square error of using the mean as a predictor is the standard deviation, and this is the least root mean square error that you can get with a constant predictor.
(This, of course, shifts the question to why the root mean squared error is interesting. I find it a bit more intuitive than the standard deviation, though: you can see it as the $L_2$ norm of the error vector, corrected for the number of points.)
answered yesterday
Anton GolovAnton Golov
273111
273111
1
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Good point. However, it indeed shifts the question. Although I can see that in a vector space, in a standard 2D plot of (X, Y) pairs I can see what the variance is on the eg. horizontal axis
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– blue_note
yesterday
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Good point. However, it indeed shifts the question. Although I can see that in a vector space, in a standard 2D plot of (X, Y) pairs I can see what the variance is on the eg. horizontal axis
$endgroup$
– blue_note
yesterday
1
1
$begingroup$
Good point. However, it indeed shifts the question. Although I can see that in a vector space, in a standard 2D plot of (X, Y) pairs I can see what the variance is on the eg. horizontal axis
$endgroup$
– blue_note
yesterday
$begingroup$
Good point. However, it indeed shifts the question. Although I can see that in a vector space, in a standard 2D plot of (X, Y) pairs I can see what the variance is on the eg. horizontal axis
$endgroup$
– blue_note
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
When defining "standard deviation", we want some way to take a bunch of deviations from a mean and quantify how big they typically are using a single number in the same units as the deviations themselves. But any definition of "standard deviation" induces a corresponding definition of "mean" because we want our choice of "mean" to always minimize the value of our "standard deviation" (intuitively, we want to define "mean" to be the "middlemost" point as measured by "standard deviation"). Only by defining "standard deviation" in the usual way do we recover the arithmetic mean while still having a measure in the right units. (Without getting into details, the key point is that the quadratic becomes linear when we take the derivative to find its critical point.)
If we want to use some other mean, we can of course find a different "standard deviation" that will match that mean (the progress is somewhat analogous to integration), but in practice it's just easier to transform the data so that the arithmetic mean is appropriate.
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$begingroup$
If all you want is to minimization at the mean and the right units, why not sum/integrate the magnitude of the deviations?
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– mephistolotl
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
When defining "standard deviation", we want some way to take a bunch of deviations from a mean and quantify how big they typically are using a single number in the same units as the deviations themselves. But any definition of "standard deviation" induces a corresponding definition of "mean" because we want our choice of "mean" to always minimize the value of our "standard deviation" (intuitively, we want to define "mean" to be the "middlemost" point as measured by "standard deviation"). Only by defining "standard deviation" in the usual way do we recover the arithmetic mean while still having a measure in the right units. (Without getting into details, the key point is that the quadratic becomes linear when we take the derivative to find its critical point.)
If we want to use some other mean, we can of course find a different "standard deviation" that will match that mean (the progress is somewhat analogous to integration), but in practice it's just easier to transform the data so that the arithmetic mean is appropriate.
New contributor
Qwerty is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
If all you want is to minimization at the mean and the right units, why not sum/integrate the magnitude of the deviations?
$endgroup$
– mephistolotl
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
When defining "standard deviation", we want some way to take a bunch of deviations from a mean and quantify how big they typically are using a single number in the same units as the deviations themselves. But any definition of "standard deviation" induces a corresponding definition of "mean" because we want our choice of "mean" to always minimize the value of our "standard deviation" (intuitively, we want to define "mean" to be the "middlemost" point as measured by "standard deviation"). Only by defining "standard deviation" in the usual way do we recover the arithmetic mean while still having a measure in the right units. (Without getting into details, the key point is that the quadratic becomes linear when we take the derivative to find its critical point.)
If we want to use some other mean, we can of course find a different "standard deviation" that will match that mean (the progress is somewhat analogous to integration), but in practice it's just easier to transform the data so that the arithmetic mean is appropriate.
New contributor
Qwerty is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$endgroup$
When defining "standard deviation", we want some way to take a bunch of deviations from a mean and quantify how big they typically are using a single number in the same units as the deviations themselves. But any definition of "standard deviation" induces a corresponding definition of "mean" because we want our choice of "mean" to always minimize the value of our "standard deviation" (intuitively, we want to define "mean" to be the "middlemost" point as measured by "standard deviation"). Only by defining "standard deviation" in the usual way do we recover the arithmetic mean while still having a measure in the right units. (Without getting into details, the key point is that the quadratic becomes linear when we take the derivative to find its critical point.)
If we want to use some other mean, we can of course find a different "standard deviation" that will match that mean (the progress is somewhat analogous to integration), but in practice it's just easier to transform the data so that the arithmetic mean is appropriate.
New contributor
Qwerty is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
Qwerty is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
answered yesterday
QwertyQwerty
111
111
New contributor
Qwerty is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
Qwerty is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Qwerty is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$begingroup$
If all you want is to minimization at the mean and the right units, why not sum/integrate the magnitude of the deviations?
$endgroup$
– mephistolotl
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If all you want is to minimization at the mean and the right units, why not sum/integrate the magnitude of the deviations?
$endgroup$
– mephistolotl
yesterday
$begingroup$
If all you want is to minimization at the mean and the right units, why not sum/integrate the magnitude of the deviations?
$endgroup$
– mephistolotl
yesterday
$begingroup$
If all you want is to minimization at the mean and the right units, why not sum/integrate the magnitude of the deviations?
$endgroup$
– mephistolotl
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The normal distribution has maximum entropy among real distributions supported on $(-infty, infty)$ with specified standard deviation (equivalently, variance). (Reference.) Consequently, if the only thing you know about a real distribution supported on $mathbb{R}$ is its mean and variance, the distribution that presumes the least prior information is the normal distribution.
I don't tend to think of the statement above as the important fact. It's more: normal distributions appear frequently and knowing the location parameter (mean) is reasonable. So what else do I have to know to make the least presumptive model be the normal distribution? The dispersion (variance).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The normal distribution has maximum entropy among real distributions supported on $(-infty, infty)$ with specified standard deviation (equivalently, variance). (Reference.) Consequently, if the only thing you know about a real distribution supported on $mathbb{R}$ is its mean and variance, the distribution that presumes the least prior information is the normal distribution.
I don't tend to think of the statement above as the important fact. It's more: normal distributions appear frequently and knowing the location parameter (mean) is reasonable. So what else do I have to know to make the least presumptive model be the normal distribution? The dispersion (variance).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The normal distribution has maximum entropy among real distributions supported on $(-infty, infty)$ with specified standard deviation (equivalently, variance). (Reference.) Consequently, if the only thing you know about a real distribution supported on $mathbb{R}$ is its mean and variance, the distribution that presumes the least prior information is the normal distribution.
I don't tend to think of the statement above as the important fact. It's more: normal distributions appear frequently and knowing the location parameter (mean) is reasonable. So what else do I have to know to make the least presumptive model be the normal distribution? The dispersion (variance).
$endgroup$
The normal distribution has maximum entropy among real distributions supported on $(-infty, infty)$ with specified standard deviation (equivalently, variance). (Reference.) Consequently, if the only thing you know about a real distribution supported on $mathbb{R}$ is its mean and variance, the distribution that presumes the least prior information is the normal distribution.
I don't tend to think of the statement above as the important fact. It's more: normal distributions appear frequently and knowing the location parameter (mean) is reasonable. So what else do I have to know to make the least presumptive model be the normal distribution? The dispersion (variance).
answered 7 hours ago
Eric TowersEric Towers
32.3k22267
32.3k22267
add a comment |
add a comment |
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6
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Have you heard the term "moment?" The variance is the second moment about the mean. See HERE
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– Mark Viola
yesterday
3
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Possible duplicate of Intuition behind Variance forumla
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– Michael Hoppe
20 hours ago
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@MarkViola And? Variance can be generalized, therefore it's meaningful?
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– Jack M
3 hours ago
1
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The absolute value deviation is a perfectly valid measure of deviation. However absolute values are very hard to work with analytically, squares are much easier. That's one answer: calculabillity.
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– Winther
2 hours ago
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@Winther: That makes sense. What I don't understand is why it normalizes values (eg covariance), and what is its geometric interpretation in one dimension (I undestand the vector space approach given by other answers)
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– blue_note
1 hour ago