Does there exist a real number a given distance from each rational number?
$begingroup$
Let $r_n$ be an enumeration of the rational numbers and let $a_n$ be a sequence of positive real numbers that converges to zero. Does there exist $xin mathbb{R}$ such that $|x-r_n|>a_n$ for all $n$?
This problem was inspired by an easier version of the problem where we assume the stronger condition that $displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty a_n$ converges. I have a simple solution in this particular case but I will spoiler it in case anyone would like to try this too.
Let $Omega$ denote the set of $xin mathbb{R}$ that do not satisfy the given property; we claim that $Omega neq mathbb{R}$ and so an $xin mathbb{R}$ with given property exists. Indeed, $Omega={xinmathbb{R} | exists nin mathbb{N} mathrm{such that} |x-r_n| leq a_n}=displaystylebigcup_{n=1}^infty [r_n-a_n,r_n+a_n]$
whose Lebesgue measure $lambda(Omega)leq displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty lambda([r_n-a_n,r_n+a_n])=displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty 2a_n < infty$, so $Omega neq mathbb{R}$.
Unfortunately it is very specific to this particular case so I doubt it helps with the general case, which I have no idea how to solve. I assume that, unless I'm missing something obvious, it uses some deeper theory (irrationality measure?) that I have not learned. Ideas for the general case or alternative (more elementary) solutions to the easier case would be appreciated.
real-analysis sequences-and-series alternative-proof
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $r_n$ be an enumeration of the rational numbers and let $a_n$ be a sequence of positive real numbers that converges to zero. Does there exist $xin mathbb{R}$ such that $|x-r_n|>a_n$ for all $n$?
This problem was inspired by an easier version of the problem where we assume the stronger condition that $displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty a_n$ converges. I have a simple solution in this particular case but I will spoiler it in case anyone would like to try this too.
Let $Omega$ denote the set of $xin mathbb{R}$ that do not satisfy the given property; we claim that $Omega neq mathbb{R}$ and so an $xin mathbb{R}$ with given property exists. Indeed, $Omega={xinmathbb{R} | exists nin mathbb{N} mathrm{such that} |x-r_n| leq a_n}=displaystylebigcup_{n=1}^infty [r_n-a_n,r_n+a_n]$
whose Lebesgue measure $lambda(Omega)leq displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty lambda([r_n-a_n,r_n+a_n])=displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty 2a_n < infty$, so $Omega neq mathbb{R}$.
Unfortunately it is very specific to this particular case so I doubt it helps with the general case, which I have no idea how to solve. I assume that, unless I'm missing something obvious, it uses some deeper theory (irrationality measure?) that I have not learned. Ideas for the general case or alternative (more elementary) solutions to the easier case would be appreciated.
real-analysis sequences-and-series alternative-proof
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $r_n$ be an enumeration of the rational numbers and let $a_n$ be a sequence of positive real numbers that converges to zero. Does there exist $xin mathbb{R}$ such that $|x-r_n|>a_n$ for all $n$?
This problem was inspired by an easier version of the problem where we assume the stronger condition that $displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty a_n$ converges. I have a simple solution in this particular case but I will spoiler it in case anyone would like to try this too.
Let $Omega$ denote the set of $xin mathbb{R}$ that do not satisfy the given property; we claim that $Omega neq mathbb{R}$ and so an $xin mathbb{R}$ with given property exists. Indeed, $Omega={xinmathbb{R} | exists nin mathbb{N} mathrm{such that} |x-r_n| leq a_n}=displaystylebigcup_{n=1}^infty [r_n-a_n,r_n+a_n]$
whose Lebesgue measure $lambda(Omega)leq displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty lambda([r_n-a_n,r_n+a_n])=displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty 2a_n < infty$, so $Omega neq mathbb{R}$.
Unfortunately it is very specific to this particular case so I doubt it helps with the general case, which I have no idea how to solve. I assume that, unless I'm missing something obvious, it uses some deeper theory (irrationality measure?) that I have not learned. Ideas for the general case or alternative (more elementary) solutions to the easier case would be appreciated.
real-analysis sequences-and-series alternative-proof
$endgroup$
Let $r_n$ be an enumeration of the rational numbers and let $a_n$ be a sequence of positive real numbers that converges to zero. Does there exist $xin mathbb{R}$ such that $|x-r_n|>a_n$ for all $n$?
This problem was inspired by an easier version of the problem where we assume the stronger condition that $displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty a_n$ converges. I have a simple solution in this particular case but I will spoiler it in case anyone would like to try this too.
Let $Omega$ denote the set of $xin mathbb{R}$ that do not satisfy the given property; we claim that $Omega neq mathbb{R}$ and so an $xin mathbb{R}$ with given property exists. Indeed, $Omega={xinmathbb{R} | exists nin mathbb{N} mathrm{such that} |x-r_n| leq a_n}=displaystylebigcup_{n=1}^infty [r_n-a_n,r_n+a_n]$
whose Lebesgue measure $lambda(Omega)leq displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty lambda([r_n-a_n,r_n+a_n])=displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty 2a_n < infty$, so $Omega neq mathbb{R}$.
Unfortunately it is very specific to this particular case so I doubt it helps with the general case, which I have no idea how to solve. I assume that, unless I'm missing something obvious, it uses some deeper theory (irrationality measure?) that I have not learned. Ideas for the general case or alternative (more elementary) solutions to the easier case would be appreciated.
real-analysis sequences-and-series alternative-proof
real-analysis sequences-and-series alternative-proof
asked 6 hours ago
AlephNullAlephNull
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2429
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
No, this is not the case, and in fact is never the case: any enumeration of rationals whatsoever has an "unsatisfiable sequence" (that is, a sequence of reals tending to zero - indeed, strictly decreasing! - such that no real satisfies the corresponding requirement on distances from rationals).
(At the same time, given a sequence $(a_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$ it's easy to construct an enumeration of the rationals with respect to which that sequence is satisfiable - just play "keep away from $pi$," and make sure every rational gets tossed in eventually - so this is the strongest negative result we can hope for.)
For simplicity, let's look at $[0,infty)$ rather than $mathbb{R}$ (this doesn't make a substantive difference).
The key point is the following picture: we chop $[0,infty)$ into blocks $B_i$ such that the size of block $B_i$ goes to zero as $i$ goes to $infty$. One way to do this is to define the $B_i$s inductively by $B_0=[0,1)$ and $B_{i+1}=[sum_{0<jle i}{1over j}, (sum_{0<jle i}{1over j})+{1over i+1})$. Note that each $B_k$ has "diameter" ${1over k+1}$, and hence if $qin B_k$ then the ball around $q$ with radius ${2over k+1}$ covers $B_k$.
Now fix any enumeration of rationals $E=(r_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$, and pick a sequence $n_i$ ($iinmathbb{N}$) of naturals such that:
$n_i<n_{i+1}$, and
$r_{n_i}in B_i$.
Such a sequence must exist since $B_icapmathbb{Q}$ is always infinite.
Finally, let $A=(a_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$ be any strictly descending sequence of rationals such that $a_{n_i}={2over i+1}$ for all $i$. The set $${(r_{n_i}-a_i, r_{n_i}+a_i): iinmathbb{N}}$$ covers $[0,infty)$ since each $(r_{n_i}-a_i, r_{n_i}+a_i)$ covers the corresponding $B_i$. So the sequence $A$ is unsatisfiable for the enumeration $E$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The answer is no. Consider the following open cover of $Bbb R$:
$$mathcal U={ (H_{2n} , H_{2n+4}) | n in Bbb N_{ge 1}} cup { (-H_{2n+4} , -H_{2n}) | n in Bbb N_{ge 1}} cup { (-3, 3) }$$
where $$H_n = sum_{j=1}^n frac 1j$$
is the $n$-th harmonic number. Note that for all $varepsilon >0$ only finitely many elements $U in mathcal U$ satisfy $lambda (U) > varepsilon$.
Let ${ U_{n} }_{n ge 1}$ be an enumeration of it indexed by positive natural numbers. This means that $a_n= lambda (U_n)$ converges to $0$.
Let ${ r_n }_{n ge 1}$ be an enumeration of rational numbers such that for all $n$
$$r_{n} in U_n$$
holds. Recall that $a_n$ is rational, and it converges to $0$.
Now, for all $x in Bbb R$ there exists $n ge 1$ such that $x in U_n$: thus $|x-r_n| < a_n$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Note that this just shows that there is an enumeration of rationals with an "unsatisfiable" sequence - it doesn't immediately imply that every enumeration of rationals has such an unsatisfiable sequence.
$endgroup$
– Noah Schweber
6 hours ago
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
No, this is not the case, and in fact is never the case: any enumeration of rationals whatsoever has an "unsatisfiable sequence" (that is, a sequence of reals tending to zero - indeed, strictly decreasing! - such that no real satisfies the corresponding requirement on distances from rationals).
(At the same time, given a sequence $(a_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$ it's easy to construct an enumeration of the rationals with respect to which that sequence is satisfiable - just play "keep away from $pi$," and make sure every rational gets tossed in eventually - so this is the strongest negative result we can hope for.)
For simplicity, let's look at $[0,infty)$ rather than $mathbb{R}$ (this doesn't make a substantive difference).
The key point is the following picture: we chop $[0,infty)$ into blocks $B_i$ such that the size of block $B_i$ goes to zero as $i$ goes to $infty$. One way to do this is to define the $B_i$s inductively by $B_0=[0,1)$ and $B_{i+1}=[sum_{0<jle i}{1over j}, (sum_{0<jle i}{1over j})+{1over i+1})$. Note that each $B_k$ has "diameter" ${1over k+1}$, and hence if $qin B_k$ then the ball around $q$ with radius ${2over k+1}$ covers $B_k$.
Now fix any enumeration of rationals $E=(r_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$, and pick a sequence $n_i$ ($iinmathbb{N}$) of naturals such that:
$n_i<n_{i+1}$, and
$r_{n_i}in B_i$.
Such a sequence must exist since $B_icapmathbb{Q}$ is always infinite.
Finally, let $A=(a_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$ be any strictly descending sequence of rationals such that $a_{n_i}={2over i+1}$ for all $i$. The set $${(r_{n_i}-a_i, r_{n_i}+a_i): iinmathbb{N}}$$ covers $[0,infty)$ since each $(r_{n_i}-a_i, r_{n_i}+a_i)$ covers the corresponding $B_i$. So the sequence $A$ is unsatisfiable for the enumeration $E$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, this is not the case, and in fact is never the case: any enumeration of rationals whatsoever has an "unsatisfiable sequence" (that is, a sequence of reals tending to zero - indeed, strictly decreasing! - such that no real satisfies the corresponding requirement on distances from rationals).
(At the same time, given a sequence $(a_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$ it's easy to construct an enumeration of the rationals with respect to which that sequence is satisfiable - just play "keep away from $pi$," and make sure every rational gets tossed in eventually - so this is the strongest negative result we can hope for.)
For simplicity, let's look at $[0,infty)$ rather than $mathbb{R}$ (this doesn't make a substantive difference).
The key point is the following picture: we chop $[0,infty)$ into blocks $B_i$ such that the size of block $B_i$ goes to zero as $i$ goes to $infty$. One way to do this is to define the $B_i$s inductively by $B_0=[0,1)$ and $B_{i+1}=[sum_{0<jle i}{1over j}, (sum_{0<jle i}{1over j})+{1over i+1})$. Note that each $B_k$ has "diameter" ${1over k+1}$, and hence if $qin B_k$ then the ball around $q$ with radius ${2over k+1}$ covers $B_k$.
Now fix any enumeration of rationals $E=(r_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$, and pick a sequence $n_i$ ($iinmathbb{N}$) of naturals such that:
$n_i<n_{i+1}$, and
$r_{n_i}in B_i$.
Such a sequence must exist since $B_icapmathbb{Q}$ is always infinite.
Finally, let $A=(a_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$ be any strictly descending sequence of rationals such that $a_{n_i}={2over i+1}$ for all $i$. The set $${(r_{n_i}-a_i, r_{n_i}+a_i): iinmathbb{N}}$$ covers $[0,infty)$ since each $(r_{n_i}-a_i, r_{n_i}+a_i)$ covers the corresponding $B_i$. So the sequence $A$ is unsatisfiable for the enumeration $E$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, this is not the case, and in fact is never the case: any enumeration of rationals whatsoever has an "unsatisfiable sequence" (that is, a sequence of reals tending to zero - indeed, strictly decreasing! - such that no real satisfies the corresponding requirement on distances from rationals).
(At the same time, given a sequence $(a_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$ it's easy to construct an enumeration of the rationals with respect to which that sequence is satisfiable - just play "keep away from $pi$," and make sure every rational gets tossed in eventually - so this is the strongest negative result we can hope for.)
For simplicity, let's look at $[0,infty)$ rather than $mathbb{R}$ (this doesn't make a substantive difference).
The key point is the following picture: we chop $[0,infty)$ into blocks $B_i$ such that the size of block $B_i$ goes to zero as $i$ goes to $infty$. One way to do this is to define the $B_i$s inductively by $B_0=[0,1)$ and $B_{i+1}=[sum_{0<jle i}{1over j}, (sum_{0<jle i}{1over j})+{1over i+1})$. Note that each $B_k$ has "diameter" ${1over k+1}$, and hence if $qin B_k$ then the ball around $q$ with radius ${2over k+1}$ covers $B_k$.
Now fix any enumeration of rationals $E=(r_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$, and pick a sequence $n_i$ ($iinmathbb{N}$) of naturals such that:
$n_i<n_{i+1}$, and
$r_{n_i}in B_i$.
Such a sequence must exist since $B_icapmathbb{Q}$ is always infinite.
Finally, let $A=(a_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$ be any strictly descending sequence of rationals such that $a_{n_i}={2over i+1}$ for all $i$. The set $${(r_{n_i}-a_i, r_{n_i}+a_i): iinmathbb{N}}$$ covers $[0,infty)$ since each $(r_{n_i}-a_i, r_{n_i}+a_i)$ covers the corresponding $B_i$. So the sequence $A$ is unsatisfiable for the enumeration $E$.
$endgroup$
No, this is not the case, and in fact is never the case: any enumeration of rationals whatsoever has an "unsatisfiable sequence" (that is, a sequence of reals tending to zero - indeed, strictly decreasing! - such that no real satisfies the corresponding requirement on distances from rationals).
(At the same time, given a sequence $(a_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$ it's easy to construct an enumeration of the rationals with respect to which that sequence is satisfiable - just play "keep away from $pi$," and make sure every rational gets tossed in eventually - so this is the strongest negative result we can hope for.)
For simplicity, let's look at $[0,infty)$ rather than $mathbb{R}$ (this doesn't make a substantive difference).
The key point is the following picture: we chop $[0,infty)$ into blocks $B_i$ such that the size of block $B_i$ goes to zero as $i$ goes to $infty$. One way to do this is to define the $B_i$s inductively by $B_0=[0,1)$ and $B_{i+1}=[sum_{0<jle i}{1over j}, (sum_{0<jle i}{1over j})+{1over i+1})$. Note that each $B_k$ has "diameter" ${1over k+1}$, and hence if $qin B_k$ then the ball around $q$ with radius ${2over k+1}$ covers $B_k$.
Now fix any enumeration of rationals $E=(r_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$, and pick a sequence $n_i$ ($iinmathbb{N}$) of naturals such that:
$n_i<n_{i+1}$, and
$r_{n_i}in B_i$.
Such a sequence must exist since $B_icapmathbb{Q}$ is always infinite.
Finally, let $A=(a_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$ be any strictly descending sequence of rationals such that $a_{n_i}={2over i+1}$ for all $i$. The set $${(r_{n_i}-a_i, r_{n_i}+a_i): iinmathbb{N}}$$ covers $[0,infty)$ since each $(r_{n_i}-a_i, r_{n_i}+a_i)$ covers the corresponding $B_i$. So the sequence $A$ is unsatisfiable for the enumeration $E$.
edited 6 hours ago
answered 6 hours ago
Noah SchweberNoah Schweber
122k10149284
122k10149284
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The answer is no. Consider the following open cover of $Bbb R$:
$$mathcal U={ (H_{2n} , H_{2n+4}) | n in Bbb N_{ge 1}} cup { (-H_{2n+4} , -H_{2n}) | n in Bbb N_{ge 1}} cup { (-3, 3) }$$
where $$H_n = sum_{j=1}^n frac 1j$$
is the $n$-th harmonic number. Note that for all $varepsilon >0$ only finitely many elements $U in mathcal U$ satisfy $lambda (U) > varepsilon$.
Let ${ U_{n} }_{n ge 1}$ be an enumeration of it indexed by positive natural numbers. This means that $a_n= lambda (U_n)$ converges to $0$.
Let ${ r_n }_{n ge 1}$ be an enumeration of rational numbers such that for all $n$
$$r_{n} in U_n$$
holds. Recall that $a_n$ is rational, and it converges to $0$.
Now, for all $x in Bbb R$ there exists $n ge 1$ such that $x in U_n$: thus $|x-r_n| < a_n$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Note that this just shows that there is an enumeration of rationals with an "unsatisfiable" sequence - it doesn't immediately imply that every enumeration of rationals has such an unsatisfiable sequence.
$endgroup$
– Noah Schweber
6 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The answer is no. Consider the following open cover of $Bbb R$:
$$mathcal U={ (H_{2n} , H_{2n+4}) | n in Bbb N_{ge 1}} cup { (-H_{2n+4} , -H_{2n}) | n in Bbb N_{ge 1}} cup { (-3, 3) }$$
where $$H_n = sum_{j=1}^n frac 1j$$
is the $n$-th harmonic number. Note that for all $varepsilon >0$ only finitely many elements $U in mathcal U$ satisfy $lambda (U) > varepsilon$.
Let ${ U_{n} }_{n ge 1}$ be an enumeration of it indexed by positive natural numbers. This means that $a_n= lambda (U_n)$ converges to $0$.
Let ${ r_n }_{n ge 1}$ be an enumeration of rational numbers such that for all $n$
$$r_{n} in U_n$$
holds. Recall that $a_n$ is rational, and it converges to $0$.
Now, for all $x in Bbb R$ there exists $n ge 1$ such that $x in U_n$: thus $|x-r_n| < a_n$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Note that this just shows that there is an enumeration of rationals with an "unsatisfiable" sequence - it doesn't immediately imply that every enumeration of rationals has such an unsatisfiable sequence.
$endgroup$
– Noah Schweber
6 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The answer is no. Consider the following open cover of $Bbb R$:
$$mathcal U={ (H_{2n} , H_{2n+4}) | n in Bbb N_{ge 1}} cup { (-H_{2n+4} , -H_{2n}) | n in Bbb N_{ge 1}} cup { (-3, 3) }$$
where $$H_n = sum_{j=1}^n frac 1j$$
is the $n$-th harmonic number. Note that for all $varepsilon >0$ only finitely many elements $U in mathcal U$ satisfy $lambda (U) > varepsilon$.
Let ${ U_{n} }_{n ge 1}$ be an enumeration of it indexed by positive natural numbers. This means that $a_n= lambda (U_n)$ converges to $0$.
Let ${ r_n }_{n ge 1}$ be an enumeration of rational numbers such that for all $n$
$$r_{n} in U_n$$
holds. Recall that $a_n$ is rational, and it converges to $0$.
Now, for all $x in Bbb R$ there exists $n ge 1$ such that $x in U_n$: thus $|x-r_n| < a_n$.
$endgroup$
The answer is no. Consider the following open cover of $Bbb R$:
$$mathcal U={ (H_{2n} , H_{2n+4}) | n in Bbb N_{ge 1}} cup { (-H_{2n+4} , -H_{2n}) | n in Bbb N_{ge 1}} cup { (-3, 3) }$$
where $$H_n = sum_{j=1}^n frac 1j$$
is the $n$-th harmonic number. Note that for all $varepsilon >0$ only finitely many elements $U in mathcal U$ satisfy $lambda (U) > varepsilon$.
Let ${ U_{n} }_{n ge 1}$ be an enumeration of it indexed by positive natural numbers. This means that $a_n= lambda (U_n)$ converges to $0$.
Let ${ r_n }_{n ge 1}$ be an enumeration of rational numbers such that for all $n$
$$r_{n} in U_n$$
holds. Recall that $a_n$ is rational, and it converges to $0$.
Now, for all $x in Bbb R$ there exists $n ge 1$ such that $x in U_n$: thus $|x-r_n| < a_n$.
edited 5 hours ago
answered 6 hours ago
CrostulCrostul
27.7k22352
27.7k22352
$begingroup$
Note that this just shows that there is an enumeration of rationals with an "unsatisfiable" sequence - it doesn't immediately imply that every enumeration of rationals has such an unsatisfiable sequence.
$endgroup$
– Noah Schweber
6 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that this just shows that there is an enumeration of rationals with an "unsatisfiable" sequence - it doesn't immediately imply that every enumeration of rationals has such an unsatisfiable sequence.
$endgroup$
– Noah Schweber
6 hours ago
$begingroup$
Note that this just shows that there is an enumeration of rationals with an "unsatisfiable" sequence - it doesn't immediately imply that every enumeration of rationals has such an unsatisfiable sequence.
$endgroup$
– Noah Schweber
6 hours ago
$begingroup$
Note that this just shows that there is an enumeration of rationals with an "unsatisfiable" sequence - it doesn't immediately imply that every enumeration of rationals has such an unsatisfiable sequence.
$endgroup$
– Noah Schweber
6 hours ago
add a comment |
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